Microeconomics Exam Review Sheet

Microeconomics  Exam Review Sheet

1. For economists, the word “utility” means:
A. purposefulness.
B. pleasure and satisfaction.
C. versatility and flexibility.
D. rationality.

2. Joe sold gold coins for $1000 that he bought a year ago for $1000. He says, “At least I didn’t lose any money on my financial investment.” His economist friend points out that in effect he did lose money, because he could have received a 3 percent return on the $1000 if he had bought a bank certificate of deposit instead of the coins. The economist’s analysis in this case incorporates the idea of:
A. opportunity costs.
B. normative economics.
C. imperfect information.
D. marginal benefits that exceed marginal costs.

 

3. A person should consume more of something when its marginal:
A. cost equals its marginal benefit.
B. benefit exceeds its marginal cost.
C. benefit is still positive.
D. cost exceeds its marginal benefit.

4. Which one of the following expressions best states the idea of opportunity cost?
A. ”All that glitters is not gold.”
B. ”There is no such thing as a free lunch.”
C. ”He who hesitates is lost.”
D. ”A penny saved is a penny earned.”

5. Alex sees that his neighbors’ lawns all need mowing. He offers to provide the service in exchange for a wage of $20 per hour. Some neighbors accept Alex’s offer and others refuse. Economists would describe Alex’s behavior as:
A. irrational, because some neighbors refused his offer.
B. rational self-interest, because he attempting to increase his own income by identifying and satisfying someone else’s wants.
C. selfish, because he is asking for a wage that is higher than others might charge.
D. greedy, because he is asking for a high wage.

 

6. The term “ceteris paribus” means:
A. prosperity inevitably follows recession.
B. that economics deals with facts, not values.
C. that if event A precedes event B, A has caused B.
D. other things equal.

7. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
A. the entire economy.
B. the operation of specific product and resource markets.
C. governmental units.
D. individual firms.

 

8. Microeconomics:
A. is concerned with individual economic units and specific markets.
B. is the basis for the “after this, therefore because of this” fallacy.
C. describes the aggregate flows of output and income.
D. is not concerned with details, but only with the overall big picture of the economy.

 

9. Which of the following is a microeconomic statement?
A. The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent last year.
B. The price of personal computers declined last year.
C. The general price level increased by 4 percent last year.
D. Unemployment was 6.8 percent of the labor force last year.

10. A normative statement is one that:
A. is based on the law of averages.
B. applies only to microeconomics.
C. applies only to macroeconomics.
D. is based on value judgments.

 

11. A positive statement is one which is:
A. derived by induction.
B. subjective and is based on a value judgment.
C. objective and is based on facts.
D. derived by deduction.

12. The economizing problem is one of deciding how to make the best use of:
A. limited resources to satisfy virtually unlimited wants.
B. unlimited resources to satisfy limited wants.
C. virtually unlimited resources to satisfy virtually unlimited wants.
D. limited resources to satisfy limited wants.

 

13. Which of the following is a labor resource?
A. a computer programmer
B. silicon (sand) used to make computer chips
C. a computer
D. a piece of software used by a firm

14. Which of the following is a capital resource?
A. a corporate bond issued by a computer manufacturer
B. a computer programmer
C. silicon (sand) used to make computer chips
D. a piece of software used by a firm

 

15. The four factors of production are:
A. labor, capital, technology, and entrepreneurial ability
B. land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurial ability
C. land, labor, capital, and money
D. labor, capital, entrepreneurial ability, and money

16. Economic resources are also called:
A. free gifts of nature.
B. consumption goods.
C. units of money capital.
D. factors of production.

 

17. The production possibilities curve tells us:
A. that costs do not change as society varies its output.
B. the specific combination of two products that is most desired by society.
C. costs are irrelevant in a society that has fixed resources.
D. the combinations of two goods that can be produced with society’s available resources.

 

18. The two general types of economic systems that exist today are:
A. market systems and command systems.
B. socialism and central planning.
C. laissez faire systems and pure command systems.
D. market systems and capitalism.

19. The term laissez-faire suggests that:
A. land and other natural resources should be privately owned, but capital should be publicly owned.
B. land and other natural resources should be publicly owned, but capital equipment should be privately owned.
C. government action is necessary if the economy is to achieve full employment and full production.
D. government should not interfere with the operation of the economy.

 

20. Command systems are also known as:
A. market systems.
B. communism.
C. laissez-faire capitalism.
D. pure capitalism.

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the market system?
A. freedom of enterprise.
B. government ownership of the major industries.
C. competition in product and resource markets.
D. private property.

22. The pursuit of self-interest:
A. is highly detrimental to the market system.
B. gives direction to the market system.
C. means the same as “selfishness.”
D. is reflected in the behavior of firms, but not in the behavior of consumers.

 

23. The regulatory mechanism of the market system is:
A. private property.
B. competition.
C. specialization.
D. self-interest.

24. The market system’s answer to the fundamental question “How will the goods and services be produced?” is essentially:
A. ”Using the least-cost production techniques.”
B. ”With as much machinery as possible.”
C. ”By exploiting labor.”
D. ”Using the latest technology.”

 

25. Which of the following is not one of the five fundamental questions?
A. Who will get the goods and services?
B. What prices will be charged for goods and services?
C. What goods and services will be produced?
D. How will the system promote progress?

26. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
A. eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution.
B. allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom.
C. results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income.
D. results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment.

 

27. The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
A. household and business.
B. free and controlled.
C. capital goods and consumer goods.
D. product and resource.

 

 

 

28. Refer to the above diagram. Flow (1) represents:
A. land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurial ability.
B. consumer expenditures.
C. wage, rent, interest, and profit income.
D. goods and services.

29. Refer to the above diagram. Flow (2) represents:
A. land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurial ability.
B. consumer expenditures.
C. wage, rent, interest, and profit income.
D. goods and services.

 

30. Refer to the above diagram. Flow (3) represents:
A. land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurial ability.
B. wage, rent, interest, and profit income.
C. consumer expenditures.
D. goods and services.

31. In terms of the circular flow diagram, households make expenditures in the _____ market and receive income through the _____ market.
A. product; resource
B. resource; product
C. capital; product
D. product; financial

32. A market:
A. always requires face-to-face contact between buyer and seller.
B. entails the exchange of goods, but not services.
C. is an institution that brings together buyers and sellers.
D. reflects upsloping demand and downsloping supply curves.

 

33. The law of demand states that:
A. price and quantity demanded are directly related.
B. the larger the number of buyers in a market, the lower will be product price.
C. consumers will buy more of a product at high prices than at low prices.
D. price and quantity demanded are inversely related.

34. An economist for a bicycle company predicts that, other things equal, a rise in consumer incomes will increase the demand for bicycles. This prediction is based on the assumption that:
A. there are many goods that are complementary to bicycles.
B. there are few goods that are substitutes for bicycles.
C. bicycles are normal goods.
D. there are many goods that are substitutes for bicycles.

35. If two goods are complements:
A. an increase in the price of one will increase the demand for the other.
B. they are necessarily inferior goods.
C. a decrease in the price of one will increase the demand for the other.
D. they are consumed independently.

 

36. The law of supply indicates that:
A. the product supply curve is downsloping.
B. producers will offer more of a product at high prices than they will at low prices.
C. producers will offer more of a product at low prices than they will at high prices.
D. consumers will purchase less of a good at high prices than they will at low prices.

37. A government subsidy to the producers of a product:
A. increases product supply.
B. reduces product demand.
C. reduces product supply.
D. increases product demand.

 

In the following question(s) you are asked to determine, other things equal, the effects of a given change in a determinant of demand or supply for product X upon (1) the demand (D) for, or supply (S) of, X, (2) the equilibrium price (P) of X and (3) the equilibrium quantity (Q) of X.

38. Refer to the above. Consumer expectations that the price of X will rise sharply in the future will:
A. increase D, increase P, and increase Q.
B. increase D, decrease P, and increase Q.
C. decrease S, increase P, and increase Q.
D. increase S, increase P, and increase Q.

 

Answer the next question(s) on the basis of the following information. The demand for commodity X is represented by the equation P = 10 – 0.2Q and supply by the equation P = 2 + 0.2Q.

39. Refer to the above information. The equilibrium quantity is:
A. 15.
B. 30.
C. 20.
D. 10.

 

 

40. Refer to the above diagram. A government-set price ceiling is best illustrated by:
A. price A.
B. price C.
C. price B.
D. quantity E.

 

41. The price elasticity of demand coefficient measures:
A. how far business executives can stretch their fixed costs.
B. the extent to which a demand curve shifts as incomes change.
C. the slope of the demand curve.
D. buyer responsiveness to price changes.

42. The basic formula for the price elasticity of demand coefficient is:
A. percentage change in price/percentage change in quantity demanded.
B. absolute decline in price/absolute increase in quantity demanded.
C. absolute decline in quantity demanded/absolute increase in price.
D. percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price.

43. The price elasticity of demand:
A. tends to be inelastic in high-price ranges and elastic in low-price ranges.
B. is the same at each price-quantity combination on a stable demand curve.
C. is infinitely large for a perfectly inelastic demand curve.
D. tends to be elastic in high-price ranges and inelastic in low-price ranges.

 

44. If a demand for a product is elastic, the value of the price elasticity coefficient is:
A. greater than one.
B. equal to one.
C. less than one.
D. zero.

45. If the demand for a product is elastic, then total revenue will:
A. increase whether price increases or decreases.
B. fall as price falls.
C. be constant in response to a price change.
D. rise as price falls.

 

46. The political technique called logrolling:
A. is an example of the paradox of voting.
B. always decreases economic efficiency.
C. involves trading votes to secure favorable outcomes that otherwise would be rejected.
D. always increases economic efficiency.

47. A situation in which society may not be able to rank its preferences consistently through paired-choice majority voting refers to:
A. the paradox of voting.
B. logrolling.
C. the special-interest effect.
D. the median-voter model.

 

48. A special-interest issue is one whose passage yields:
A. small economic losses to a small number of people and large economic losses to a large number of people.
B. large economic gains to a small number of people and small economic losses to a large number of people.
C. large private benefits compared to external benefits.
D. large external benefits compared to private benefits.

49. Which of the following taxes reflects the benefits-received principle of taxation?
A. sales taxes
B. Federal personal income taxes
C. cigarette taxes
D. gasoline taxes

 

50. Using income as the tax base, which of the following best illustrates a regressive tax?
A. the corporate income tax
B. the Federal inheritance tax
C. a 7 percent general sales tax
D. the personal income tax

51. National income accountants can avoid multiple counting by:
A. including transfers in their calculations.
B. only counting final goods.
C. counting both intermediate and final goods.
D. only counting intermediate goods.

 

52. The government agency responsible for collecting and reporting unemployment data is the:
A. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
B. Bureau of Unemployment.
C. Bureau of Economic Analysis.
D. Bureau of Economic Research.

53. A college graduate using the summer following graduation to search for a job would best be classified as:
A. not officially a member of the labor force.
B. a part of structural unemployment.
C. a part of cyclical unemployment.
D. a part of frictional unemployment.

 

54. If the rate of inflation is 12 percent per year, the price level will double in about:
A. 4 years.
B. 6 years.
C. 10 years.
D. 12 years.

 

55. Unemployment involving a mismatch of the skills of unemployed workers and the skills required for available jobs is called:
A. frictional unemployment.
B. structural unemployment.
C. cyclical unemployment.
D. compositional unemployment.

56. Real GDP refers to:
A. the value of the domestic output after adjustments have been made for environmental pollution and changes in the distribution of income.
B. GDP data that embody changes in the price level, but not changes in physical output.
C. GDP data that reflect changes in both physical output and the price level.
D. GDP data that have been adjusted for changes in the price level.

 

57. Which of the following would most likely occur during the expansionary phase of the business cycle?
A. Demand-pull inflation
B. Cost-push inflation
C. Structural inflation
D. Frictional inflation

58. To be officially unemployed a person must:
A. be in the labor force.
B. be 21 years of age or older.
C. have just lost a job.
D. be waiting to be called back from a layoff.

59. The unemployment rate is the:
A. ratio of unemployed to employed workers.
B. number of employed workers minus the number of workers who are not in the labor force.
C. percentage of the labor force that is unemployed.
D. percentage of the total population that is unemployed.

 

60. To achieve its full production potential, an economy must reach full employment.
True    False

61. In which phase of the business cycle will the economy most likely experience rising real output and falling unemployment rates?
A. expansion
B. recession
C. peak
D. trough

 

62. The aggregate demand curve:
A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.
B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.
C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.
D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

63. In national income accounting, G stands for:
A. government purchases.
B. gross investment.
C. government transfer payments.
D. gross saving.

 

64. Which of the following is an intermediate good?
A. the purchase of gasoline for a ski trip to Colorado.
B. the purchase of baseball uniforms by a professional baseball team.
C. the purchase of a pizza by a college student.
D. the purchase of jogging shoes by a professor

 

65. Demand-pull inflation:
A. occurs when prices of resources rise, pushing up costs and the price level.
B. occurs when total spending exceeds the economy’s ability to provide output at the existing price level.
C. occurs only when the economy has reached its absolute production capacity.
D. is also called cost-push inflation.

66. A nation’s gross domestic product (GDP):
A. is the dollar value of all final output produced within the borders of the nation.
B. is the dollar value of all final output produced by its citizens, regardless of where they are living.
C. can be found by summing C + In + S + Xn.
D. is always some amount less than its C + Ig+ G + Xn.

 

67. ”Too much money chasing too few goods” best describes:
A. the GDP gap.
B. demand-pull inflation.
C. the inflation premium.
D. cost-push inflation.

68. Alex works in his own home as a homemaker and full-time caretaker of his children. Officially, he is:
A. unemployed.
B. employed.
C. not in the labor force.
D. in the labor force.

 

 

 

69. In the above diagram, a shift from AS3 to AS2might be caused by an increase in:
A. business taxes and government regulation.
B. the prices of imported resources.
C. the prices of domestic resources.
D. productivity.

70. The system that measures the economy’s overall performance is formally known as:
A. National income accounting
B. Business cycle measurement
C. GDP assessment
D. Final output and income statistics

 

71. Real GDP measures:
A. current output at current prices.
B. current output at base year prices.
C. base year output at current prices.
D. base year output at current exchange rates.

72. The aggregate supply curve:
A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.
B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.
C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.
D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

 

73. Cost-push inflation may be caused by:
A. a decline in per unit production costs.
B. a decrease in wage rates.
C. a negative supply shock.
D. an increase in resource availability.

74. Recurring upswings and downswings in an economy’s real GDP over time are called:
A. recessions.
B. business cycles.
C. output yo-yos.
D. total product oscillations.

 

75. The natural rate of unemployment is:
A. higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment.
B. lower than the full-employment rate of unemployment.
C. that rate of unemployment occurring when the economy is at its potential output.
D. found by dividing total unemployment by the size of the labor force.

76. Dr. Homer Simpson, an economics professor, decided to take a year off from teaching to run a commercial fishing boat in Alaska. That year, Professor Simpson would be officially counted as:
A. structurally unemployed.
B. frictionally unemployed.
C. not in the labor force.
D. employed.

 

77. Cost-push inflation:
A. reduces real output.
B. increases real output.
C. reduces the unemployment rate.
D. raises the natural rate of unemployment.

78. The phase of the business cycle in which real GDP is at a minimum is called:
A. the peak.
B. a recession.
C. the trough.
D. the pits.

 

79. Nominal GDP is:
A. the sum of all monetary transactions that occur in the economy in a year.
B. the sum of all monetary transactions involving final goods and services that occur in the economy in a year.
C. the amount of production that occurs when the economy is operating at full employment.
D. money GDP adjusted for inflation.

 

80. Given the annual rate of inflation, the “rule of 70″ allows one to:
A. determine whether the inflation is demand-pull or cost-push.
B. calculate the accompanying rate of unemployment.
C. determine when the value of a real asset will approach zero.
D. calculate the number of years required for the price level to double.

81. A recession is a period in which:
A. cost-push inflation is present.
B. nominal domestic output falls.
C. demand-pull inflation is present.
D. real domestic output falls.

 

82. The agency responsible for compiling the National Income Product Accounts for the U.S. economy is the:
A. Council of Economic Advisers
B. Bureau of Economic Analysis
C. National Bureau of Economic Research
D. Bureau of Labor Statistics

83. The largest component of total expenditures in the United States is:
A. net exports.
B. government purchases.
C. consumption.
D. gross investment.

 

84. Cyclical unemployment results from:
A. a deficiency of spending on goods and services.
B. the decreasing relative importance of goods and the increasing relative importance of services in the U.S. economy.
C. the everyday dynamics of a free labor market.
D. technological change.

Use the list below to answer the following questions:
1. Improvements in technology
2. Increases in the supply (stock) of capital goods
3. Purchases of expanding output
4. Obtaining the optimal combination of goods, each at least-cost production
5. Increases in the quantity and quality of natural resources
6. Increases in the quantity and quality of human resources

 

85. Refer to the above list. As distinct from the supply factors and demand factor of economic growth, the efficiency factor of economic growth is:
A. 1 only.
B. 4 only.
C. 1 and 3 only.
D. 3 only.

86. Refer to the above list. As distinct from the demand and efficiency factors of economic growth, the supply factors of economic growth are:
A. 2, 5, and 6 only.
B. 2, 4, 5, and 6 only.
C. 1, 2, 5, and 6 only.
D. 1, 3, 4 only.

 

87. GDP is equal to:
A. C + Ig + G + Xn.
B. C + Ig + GXn.
C. C + In + G + Xn.
D. C + In + GXn.

88. Transfer payments are:
A. excluded when calculating GDP because they only reflect inflation.
B. excluded when calculating GDP because they do not reflect current production.
C. included when calculating GDP because they are a category of investment spending.
D. included when calculating GDP because they increase the spending of recipients.

 

89. When the U.S. economy has achieved full employment, the unemployment rate is between:
A. 5 and 6 percent.
B. 4 and 5 percent.
C. 3 and 4 percent.
D. 2 and 3 percent.

90. The phase of the business cycle in which real GDP declines is called:
A. the peak.
B. an expansion.
C. a recession.
D. the trough.

 

91. Which of the following is a final good or service?
A. a haircut
B. fertilizer purchased by a farm supplier
C. diesel fuel bought for a delivery truck
D. Chevrolet windows purchased by a General Motors assembly plant

92. The full-employment unemployment rate means an unemployment rate of about:
A. 15 percent.
B. 10 percent.
C. 4-5 percent.
D. 2 percent.

 

93. The factors that affect the amounts that consumers, businesses, government, and foreigners wish to purchase at each price level are the:
A. real-balances, interest-rate, and foreign purchases effects.
B. determinants of aggregate supply.
C. determinants of aggregate demand.
D. sole determinants of the equilibrium price level and the equilibrium real output.

94. A nation’s gross domestic product (GDP):
A. can be found by summing C + Ig + G + Xn.
B. is the dollar value of the total output produced by its citizens, regardless of where they are living.
C. can be found by summing C + S + G + Xn.
D. is always some amount less than its NDP.

 

95. Final goods and services refer to:
A. goods and services that are unsold and therefore added to inventories.
B. goods and services whose value has been adjusted for changes in the price level.
C. goods and services purchased by ultimate users, rather than for resale or further processing.
D. the excess of U.S. exports over U.S. imports.

 

96. Improvements in technology are considered a demand factor in economic growth.
True    False

97. Which of the following is not a supply factor in economic growth?
A. the stock of capital
B. technological advance
C. the size and quality of the labor force
D. aggregate expenditures of households, businesses, and government

 

98. The natural rate of unemployment is the:
A. unemployment rate experienced at the depth of a depression.
B. full-employment unemployment rate.
C. unemployment rate experienced by the least-skilled workers in the economy.
D. unemployment rate experienced by the most-skilled workers in the economy.

 

99. Wait unemployment and search unemployment are both types of:
A. cyclical unemployment.
B. hidden unemployment.
C. frictional unemployment.
D. structural unemployment.

100. Inflation initiated by increases in wages or other resource prices is labeled:
A. demand-pull inflation.
B. demand-push inflation.
C. cost-push inflation.
D. cost-pull inflation.

 

101. The largest component of the money supply (M1) is:
A. gold certificates.
B. checkable deposits.
C. currency in circulation.
D. travelers’ checks.

102. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?
A. There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.
B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.
C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.
D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

 

103. The discount rate is the interest:
A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.
B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.
C. yield on long-term government bonds.
D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

104. The seven members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System are:
A. appointed by the President with the confirmation of the Senate.
B. elected by Congress from a slate of nominees provided by the President.
C. appointed by the Senate Finance Committee.
D. appointed by the presidents of the twelve Federal Reserve Banks.

 

105. Which of the following is not a tool of monetary policy?
A. open market operations
B. changes in banking laws
C. changes in the amount of reserves available at the term auction facility
D. changes in the reserve ratio

106. Checkable deposits are:
A. included in M1.
B. not included in either Ml or M2.
C. considered to be a near money.
D. also called time deposits.

 

107. In the United States, the money supply (M1) is comprised of:
A. coins, paper currency, and checkable deposits.
B. currency, checkable deposits, and Series E bonds.
C. coins, paper currency, checkable deposits, and credit balances with brokers.
D. paper currency, coins, gold certificates, and time deposits.

108. Most modern banking systems are based on:
A. money of intrinsic value.
B. commodity money.
C. 100 percent reserves.
D. fractional reserves.

 

109. An appropriate fiscal policy for a severe recession is:
A. a decrease in government spending.
B. a decrease in tax rates.
C. appreciation of the dollar.
D. an increase in interest rates.

110. When the receipts given by goldsmiths to depositors were used to make purchases:
A. the gold standard was created.
B. existing banking laws were violated.
C. the receipts became in effect paper money.
D. a fractional reserve banking system was created.

 

111. Money functions as:
A. a store of value.
B. a unit of account.
C. a medium of exchange.
D. all of these.

112. Banks destroy money when they:
A. buy government bonds.
B. accept deposits of cash into checkable accounts.
C. fail to reissue loans that are paid off.
D. clear checks against another bank.

113. The group of three economists appointed by the President to provide fiscal policy recommendations is the:
A. Council of Economic Advisers.
B. Joint Economic Committee.
C. Bureau of Economic Analysis.
D. Federal Reserve Board of Governors.

 

114. The four main tools of monetary policy are:
A. tax rate changes, the discount rate, open-market operations, and the Federal funds rate.
B. tax rate changes, changes in government expenditures, open-market operations, and the term auction facility.
C. the discount rate, the reserve ratio, the term auction facility, and open-market operations.
D. changes in government expenditures, the reserve ratio, the Federal funds rate, and the discount rate.

115. The basic policy-making body in the U.S. banking system is the:
A. Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
B. Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve.
C. Federal Monetary Authority.
D. Council of Economic Advisers.

116. Credits cards are:
A. the fastest growing component of the M1 money supply.
B. near-monies that are part of the M2 money supply but not the M1 money supply.
C. not money, officially defined.
D. also known as time deposits.

 

117. The equilibrium rate of interest in the market for money is determined by the intersection of the:
A. supply of money curve and the asset demand for money curve.
B. supply of money curve and the transactions demand for money curve.
C. supply of money curve and the total demand for money curve.
D. investment demand curve and total demand for money curve.

118. The Federal Reserve System was created in:
A. 1926.
B. 1946.
C. 1895.
D. 1913.

 

119. How often does the Fed offer reserves through the term auction facility?
A. Every two months.
B. Twice a year.
C. Once a week.
D. Twice a month.

120. The members of the Federal Reserve Board:
A. serve seven-year terms.
B. are appointed by the American Economic Association.
C. are elected by votes of the 12 presidents of the Federal Reserve Banks.
D. serve 14-year terms.

 

121. Currency in circulation is part of:
A. M1 only.
B. M2 only.
C. neither M1 nor M2.
D. both M1 and M2.

122. Fiscal policy refers to the:
A. manipulation of government spending and taxes to stabilize domestic output, employment, and the price level.
B. manipulation of government spending and taxes to achieve greater equality in the distribution of income.
C. altering of the interest rate to change aggregate demand.
D. fact that equal increases in government spending and taxation will be contractionary.

 

123. The crowding-out effect of expansionary fiscal policy suggests that:
A. government spending is increasing at the expense of private investment.
B. imports are replacing domestic production.
C. private investment is increasing at the expense of government spending.
D. saving is increasing at the expense of investment.

124. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?
A. open market operations
B. changes in banking laws
C. changes in tax rates
D. changes in government spending

 

125. The paper money used in the United States is:
A. National Bank Notes.
B. Treasury Notes.
C. United States Notes.
D. Federal Reserve Notes.

126. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?
A. There are 10 regional Federal Reserve Banks.
B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.
C. There are seven members of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors.
D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

 

127. The public debt is the amount of money that:
A. state and local governments owe to the Federal government.
B. Americans owe to foreigners.
C. the Federal government owes to holders of U.S. securities.
D. the Federal government owes to taxpayers.

128. In a fractional reserve banking system:
A. bank panics cannot occur.
B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.
C. banks can create money through the lending process.
D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

1 29. As it relates to Federal Reserve activities, the acronym FOMC describes the:
A. Federal Open Market Committee.
B. Federal Options Market Committee.
C. Federal Organization for Monetary Control.
D. Federal Organization for Money Creation.

 

130. Checkable deposits are also called:
A. checking accounts.
B. high-powered money.
C. savings balances.
D. Federal Reserve Notes.

131. The amount that a commercial bank can lend is determined by its:
A. required reserves.
B. excess reserves.
C. outstanding loans.
D. outstanding checkable deposits.

 

132. Expansionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
A. involves an expansion of the nation’s money supply.
B. necessarily expands the size of government.
C. is aimed at achieving greater price stability.
D. is designed to expand real GDP.

133. If you place a part of your summer earnings in a savings account, you are using money primarily as a:
A. medium of exchange.
B. store of value.
C. unit of account.
D. standard of value.

 

134. The money supply is backed:
A. by the government’s ability to control the supply of money and therefore to keep its value relatively stable.
B. by government bonds.
C. dollar-for-dollar with gold and silver.
D. dollar-for-dollar with gold bullion.

135. Currency (paper money plus coins) constitutes about:
A. 81 percent of the U.S. M1 money supply.
B. 56 percent of the U.S. M1 money supply.
C. 46 percent of the U.S. M1 money supply.
D. 11 percent of the U.S. M1 money supply.

136. What act set as a goal the maximum employment, production, and purchasing power?

  1. Employment Act of 1496
  2. Employment Act of 1962
  3. Fiscal Production Act
  4. Employment Act 1945

 

137. The United States can go bankrupt?

  1. True
  2. False

 

 

138. Which of the following is a reason why money has value?

 

A. Legal Tender

B. Acceptability

C. Relative Scarcity

D. All of the above

 

139.         Which of the following is not a timing problem in Fiscal Policy?

A.    Recognition Lag

B.    Administrative Lag

C.    Jet Lag

D.    Operational Lag

 

 

140.             Which of the following is Not a cause of Public Debt?

A.    Wars

B.   International Trade in Yard Sale items

C.    Tax Cuts

D.    Lack of Political Will

141. A tariff can best be described as:
A. an excise tax on an imported good.
B. a government payment to domestic producers to enable them to sell competitively in world markets.
C. an excise tax on an exported good.
D. a law that sets a limit on the amount of a good that can be imported.

 

142. The number of countries belonging to the World Trade Organization (WTO), as of 2008, is about:
A. 153.
B. 135.
C. 80.
D. 202.

143. The traditional Phillips Curve suggests a tradeoff between:
A. price level stability and income equality.
B. the level of unemployment and price level stability.
C. unemployment and income equality.
D. economic growth and full employment.

 

144. Which is an example of a nontariff barrier (NTB)?
A. an export subsidy
B. an excise tax on the physical volume of imported goods
C. box-by-box inspection requirements for imported fruit
D. an excise tax on the dollar value of imported goods

145. Countries engaged in international trade specialize in production based on:
A. relative levels of GDP.
B. comparative advantage.
C. relative exchange rates.
D. relative inflation rates.

 

146. Tariffs:
A. may be imposed either to raise revenue (revenue tariffs) or to shield domestic producers from foreign competition (protective tariffs).
B. are also called import quotas.
C. are excise taxes on goods exported abroad.
D. are per unit subsidies designed to promote exports.

147. The World Trade Organization:
A. is also known as the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
B. is also known as NAFTA.
C. was established to resolve disputes arising under world trade rules.
D. enhances world trade by providing interest rate subsidies to foreign borrowers who buy exports on credit.

 

148. An excise tax on an imported good that helps shield domestic producers of the good is called a:
A. protective tariff.
B. import quota.
C. revenue tariff.
D. voluntary export restriction.

149. In effect tariffs on imports are:
A. special taxes on domestic producers.
B. subsidies to domestic consumers.
C. subsidies to foreign producers.
D. subsidies for domestic producers.

 

150. The organization created to oversee the provisions of multilateral trade agreements, resolve disputes under the international trade rules, and meet periodically to consider further trade liberalization is called the:
A. International Monetary Fund (IMF).
B. World Trade Organization (WTO).
C. Common Market Organization (CMO).
D. International Trade Commission (ITC).

151. Free trade based on comparative advantage is economically beneficial because:
A. it promotes an efficient allocation of world resources.
B. it increases competition.
C. it provides consumers with a wider range of products.
D. of all of these reasons.

 

152. Disinflation occurs when:
A. the price level is falling.
B. investment plans exceed saving.
C. a speculative investment “bubble” is bursting.
D. the inflation rate is declining.

 

 

 

153. Refer to the above diagram for a specific economy. The curve on this graph is known as a:
A. Laffer Curve.
B. Phillips Curve.
C. labor demand curve.
D. production possibilities curve.

154. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
A. the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line.
B. its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced.
C. its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least.
D. its absolute money cost of production is least.

 

155. Other things equal, economists would prefer:
A. free trade to tariffs and tariffs to import quotas.
B. free trade to import quotas and import quotas to tariffs.
C. import quotas to tariffs and tariffs to voluntary export restrictions.
D. import quotas to free trade and free trade to tariffs.

 

156. (Consider This) The ideas of economist Arthur Laffer became the centerpiece for tax policy during the:
A. Ford administration.
B. Clinton administration.
C. Nixon administration.
D. Reagan administration.

 

 

 

157. The above curve is known as the:
A. Taylor rule.
B. Okun Curve.
C. Laffer Curve.
D. Phillips Curve.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

UTM Microeconomics Final Exam Review Sheet  Key

1. B

 

2. A

 

3. B

 

4. B

 

5. B

 

6. D

 

7. A

 

8. A

 

9. B

 

10. D

 

11. C

 

12. A

 

13. A

 

14. D

 

15. B

 

16. D

 

17. D

 

18. A

 

19. D

 

20. B

 

21. B

 

22. B

 

23. B

 

24. A

 

25. B

 

26. B

 

27. D

 

28. C

 

29. A

 

30. D

 

31. A

 

32. C

 

33. D

 

34. C

 

35. C

 

36. B

 

37. A

 

38. A

 

39. C

 

40. A

 

41. D

 

42. D

 

43. D

 

44. A

 

45. D

 

46. C

 

47. A

 

48. B

 

49. D

 

50. C

 

 

51. B

 

52. A

 

53. D

 

54. B

 

55. B

 

56. D

 

57. A

 

58. A

 

59. C

 

60. TRUE

 

61. A

 

62. D

 

63. A

 

64. B

 

65. B

 

66. A

 

67. B

 

68. C

 

69. D

 

70. A

 

71. B

 

72. C

 

73. C

 

74. B

 

75. C

 

76. D

 

77. A

 

78. C

 

79. B

 

80. D

 

81. D

 

82. B

 

83. C

 

84. A

 

85. B

 

86. C

 

87. A

 

88. B

 

89. B

 

90. C

 

91. A

 

92. C

 

93. C

 

94. A

 

95. C

 

96. FALSE

 

97. D

 

98. B

 

99. C

 

100. C

 

 

101. C

 

102. A

 

103. B

 

104. A

 

105. B

 

106. A

 

107. A

 

108. D

 

109. B

 

110. C

 

111. D

 

112. C

 

113. A

 

114. C

 

115. B

 

116. C

 

117. C

 

118. D

 

119. D

 

120. D

 

121. D

 

122. A

 

123. A

 

124. A

 

125. D

 

126. C

 

127. C

 

128. C

 

129. A

 

130. A

 

131. B

 

132. D

 

133. B

 

134. A

 

135. B

 

136. D

 

137. B

 

138. D

 

139. C

 

140. B

 

 

141. A

 

142. A

 

143. B

 

144. C

 

145. B

 

146. A

 

147. C

 

148. A

 

149. D

 

150. B

 

151. D

 

152. D

 

153. B

 

154. B

 

155. A

 

156. D

 

157. C

 

 

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